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by l33t2328 1528 days ago
Yes, of course. Because definable (really, computable) numbers don’t really “exist” either.
1 comments

We can can use definable numbers. Pi is used with such massive frequency that is seems silly to say it has the same nonexistence as numbers that we can literally never even mention, let alone use.

My assertion is that there is something wonky with these u definable numbers and that wonkiness is directly related to how absolutely massive the infinity of reals is.