| >In fact, perhaps they would take exception to your assertion that they are actively seeking control, is that not a possibility? Why would them taking exception mattered if they couldn't control the speech of others? Let them take exception and do whatever they want with it so long as it doesn't affect the rights or ability of others to speak. >How do you know they are not being harmed by those who actively utter speech designed to be hurtful? Is speech hurtful or offensive? That's the crux of the issue, and you've assumed the end before you argued a position, so you've put the cart before the horse and assumed your intended consequence. It's not a logical argument. >What qualification can you present that would make me trust in your assessment of some other person's level of tolerance to abuse? Who are you again, that I need to provide qualifications to you? And why do you keep assuming the conclusion by saying offensive speech is 'abuse', when it isn't? What qualifications do you have that let you do that? >And really, "tolerance to abuse" here means "inability to escape abuse." again, assuming being offended is the same thing as being abused. Nonsense. >your willful offending I find your bad faith argument offensive, so we'll take your definitions and say they're abusive and you're being willfully abusive to me - please stop abusing me. |
Agreed (well, "can it be", but otherwise same thing)
We heard some arguments that it can be (encouraging suicide, dehumanizing minorities, inciting insurrection,etc).
Do you think it cannot be? What are your arguments to support this position if so?
>assuming being offended is the same thing as being abused. Nonsense
Do you belive, even if the speech were to rise to the level of abuse, it would be harmful? If not, the distinction seems meaningless. If so, it seems a tacit admission that speech can be harmful.