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by benbenolson
1531 days ago
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Very likely, this was not done intentionally. I think we can simply imagine a common scenario: some employee working for Company X, developing a compiler suite, and adding necessary optimizations for Company X's processors. Meanwhile, Company Y's processors don't get as much focus (perhaps due to the employee not knowing about Company Y's CPUIDs, supported optimizations for different models, etc.). Thus, Company Y's processors don't run as quickly with this particular library. Why does this have to be malicious intent? Surely it's not surprising to you that Company X's software executes quicker on Company X's processors: I should hope that it does! The same would hold true if Company Y were to develop a compiler; unique features of their processors (and perhaps not Company X's) should be used to their fullest extent. |
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If they had fixed the issue shortly after it was publicly disclosed it might have been unintentional, but this issue has been notorious for over a decade and they still refuse to remove the unnecessary checks. They know what they're doing.