[car_analogy]

Even if true, that still falls under unwilling. But is there a single case where being given a reason for a ban has been used to successfully sue someone? (Assuming the reason is half-way legitimate, i.e. not "You were banned based on a protected characteristic.")

I'm rather sick of implausible legal scenarios being imagined to excuse corporate behavior. At least let their PR department come up with the excuses, don't do it for free.