[belorn]

As lawyer, could you make an argument how consent can be given by a person if they haven't read the legal document, the other party know that the person has not read the document, and even if the person had read the document they would not understand it because of its language, complexity and size.

To put it in other words, if we used the same definition of consent in any other legal contexts that also require freely given informed consent, would the legal system still function?