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by JumpCrisscross 1566 days ago
> we don't really have any experimental data that can't be explained by the Standard Model

What was the evidence Copernicus saw that epicycles didn't explain? (Honest question.)

1 comments

Nothing. His model actually fit the data worse than epicycles. He just thought it was a more sensible approach that matched the Pythagorean opinion.

It wasn’t until Kepler that a geocentric model involving ellipses actually was more predictive.

Might be worth returning to the Pythagorean interpretation (which Bohr discussed): All is number. The world is made of math, not stuff.

> It wasn’t until Kepler that a geocentric model involving ellipses actually was more predictive.

You mean heliocentric?

Thanks, my bad.