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by dmg8
5383 days ago
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I immediately thought that same thing. Someone else posted this link (http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/20566/prove-there-ar...) which answers the question: if Pi is a "normal number" -- a number whose expansion in base b asymptotically contains each digit 0, 1, ..., b-1 with equal frequency, for any give b -- then within that numbers expansion (in any base) you'll find every finite string composed of those digits infinitely many times. So normal numbers will not only contain any person's name, but every book ever written, every law of nature, etc. Wikipedia says that Pi is widely believed to be normal, but that it's not been proved. It's interesting that almost every real number has this normality property (in the sense that the set of real numbers that are not normal has Lebesgue measure zero), as it sounds like a very restrictive criteria. |
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