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by mijoharas
1589 days ago
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Yeah, I'm trying to understand how this is allowed? It seems like it's in incredibly bad faith. Can anyone explain how this can happen? Taking this to it's extreme, can't you just buy some property so that you owe 1 million dollars, put that debt into it's own company and then say "sorry, that company is bankrupt, I can't pay". Is that not what's happening here? I feel like I must be missing something. |
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So I think the way that these rules play out WRT J&J would be that they have to include all assets pertaining to their baby powder / talc business into the new entity, along with the amount of cash that is ordinarily used to operate the business into the spin out. That way the spin out contains what realistically constituted the talc business (net of profits that have been taken or reallocate in the past), so it can be held liable for any debts associated with the same business.
EDIT: looks like in their case they're basically splitting into two companies - one that does pharmaceuticals (drugs, vaccines, etc) and the spinoff that does consumer products (Listerine, shampoo, the baby powder / talc in question, etc) with each part receiving relevant operating assets and associated liabilities, but the pharma side (which will retain the name) keeping the excess cash on hand and other non-operating assets.