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by bondarchuk
1598 days ago
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But technically, the user itself is sending his own data to the third party, and the original website is merely requesting the user to do so. You could interpret it like this: "To use this website, it's best if you have this font. You can get it from here: https://google.com/fonts/blah". It's not exactly the same case as a more obvious GDPR violation, where the website would collect information from the user, and then send it to a third party (e.g. selling user data to a data broker). >It hardly matters in the court of law what you "could also say". On the contrary, it's exactly what the court is there for. |
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... in a violation of GPDR, because user's informed consent was not received beforehand.
> it's exactly what the court is there for
I might have been more clear: it hardly matters what you or I could say — what does matter is only what the lawyers say. In this case, I assume that either A. the defendant's lawyers have brought this argument before the court, and the verdict still was what it was; or B. the defendant's lawyers have failed to bring this argument before the court.
The courts are not there to discuss arguments made in HN comments.