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by rich_sasha
1608 days ago
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> I understand the political implications of this (namely that Covid19 probably did not originate from Wuhan after all) I do wonder (honestly, not rhetorically), if the virus emerged somewhere outside of China, what are the odds of the first major outbreak being in Wuhan? Why did we not see major outbreaks elsewhere at the same time? Perhaps the presence of cases outside of China this early on simply means Covid was simmering, and spilling out, earlier than we thought. |
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1) Covid19 was circulating, but had it's first outbreak in Wuhan due to things like population density
2) Covid19 was circulating earlier than China informed the world know (I'm not claiming grand conspiracy here to keep things secret; the simplest explanation is China didn't figure out what was happening for a while)
3) There were other coronaviruses with the same or similar proteins elsewhere.
I'm leaning towards #3. It makes a heck of a lot of sense for a lot of things unexplainable with SARS-COV2. If there was a mild cold circulating similar to SARS-COV2, but less deadly and less contagious, it'd explain a lot of the epidemiology (for example, why waves break so early, rather than infecting 70-90% of the population).