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by fellowniusmonk 1621 days ago
Why is "efficient" defined as consuming natural resources to produce children?

Why is that a measure of societal success?

Who gets to determine that this is a rubric that should even be considered?

Seems simplistic in the extreme. I think enlightenment thinking and the concurrent non-successionist/non-miraculous/cessationist protestant reformation that drove the new world clearly overlap heavily in the venn diagram of ideology. Are modern atheists core positions (epistemologically "different" "new atheism" fizzled quite quickly) not of the same ilk as our historical humanist/agnostic/deist societies?

1 comments

> Why is that a measure of societal success?

Any judgement about ultimate value is just as arbitrary. It's one of the most basic and most intractable problems in philosophy.