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by dljones 1624 days ago
Not what it says.

Immunocompromised people, in order for their "omicron" to develop resistance to the various treatments available (the monoclonal antibodies) must have been exposed to those treatments. If they were exposed to those treatments, they were being followed medically. If they were being followed medically, and receiving long-term treatments, it's then odd that they didn't infect a single other person in a year and a half.

On the other hand, there's the somewhat bigoted implication that "oh there are a lot of remote people in Africa that don't come in contact with anyone else." Well, then how did their omicron develop resistance to all the fancy treatments?

Either it's an immune compromised patient who never came in contact with anyone else, and the specific resistance to monoclonal antibodies, which they never received, is not explained.

Or it's an immune compromised patient who received intensive treatments for a long time, in which case the lack of any intermediate variants ever being documented is not explained.

S/he didn't say immunocompromised people don't have antibodies.

S/he says mice don't have human antibodies, so if the "mouse hypothesis" is correct, how did the mice, unless they were lab mice, get the immunity to all these human treatments?