> An intrinsic theory of value (also called theory of objective value) is any theory of value in economics which holds that the value of an object, good or service, is intrinsic, meaning that it can be estimated using objective measures.
If you use "what someone last paid for it" as a measure of intrinsic value, then they have intrinsic value.
> If you use "what someone last paid for it" as a measure of intrinsic value, then they have intrinsic value.
Clearly this doesn’t meet the requirements of an objective measure.
A single tulip bulb was purchased for 2500 florins in 1636. That represents 10 years of a skilled laborers earnings at the time.
If you believe that the price an NFT sold for on a ledger represents its intrinsic value, then you must also believe that a tulip bulb’s intrinsic value was equivalent to 10 years of skilled labor.
Obviously this is absurd, and history proved it so.
Sorry - I edited my comment while you were posting this. Feel free to reply to my full comment, since I address the consequences of this line of reasoning there.
Thank you for the response! And sorry for taking so long with mine.
I agree that the example you provided is a more "objective" one, more grounded in physical reality - a tulip costing the same as a 10 years' salary.
> Obviously this is absurd, and history proved it so.
Had the tulips kept their scarcity, and had social interest remained at such high levels, couldn't it have kept its value?
An example I have is gold: people have been hoarding and valuing it for millennia. Sure, it occasionally crashes, but so do a lot of assets. Is it in a constant bubble? Is it overvalued? What is the intrinsic value of gold? It is not very useful in itself, but it is in demand and scarce, as opposed to fiat currency, which is in free fall.
If you are saying that something requires a ledger entry to have value, then you are simply proving that it has no intrinsic value.