|
|
|
|
|
by mytailorisrich
1643 days ago
|
|
In the UK that would be interference with goods (a tort) or taking a vehicle without the owner's consent (a criminal offense). Still in the UK, although I suspect that holds more generally, when you buy something using a loan you own it. What you bought may be a security for the loan but that's different. Leasing a car or using a lease/purchase scheme is also different since leasing means you rent but don't own. |
|