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by derriz 1656 days ago
> I think your example would easily satisfy regulators.

That was kind of my point - the example scenario is clearly legitimate. The problem is that if spoofing is defined as submitting an order with no intent for it to execute, then in that scenario, that's exactly what I've done (for one of the orders).

So sure, it's seems clear that I should get a pass for doing it just once. What if I was doing a trade like this every day or tens or thousands of times a day? To the other participants, it looks like I'm flooding the book with orders which 50% of the time just get pulled for no apparent reason. The rule is supposed to protect other participants from being confused by such quotes, no?

Btw, I think it just muddies the waters by bringing up automated trading and the charge of "not having control over your algorithm" which is distinct from the specific charge of order spoofing. Whether the orders are entered manually or by a program does not fundamentally change their 'spoofyness' to other participants.

The fundamental issue I have is there is no quantifiable or clearly stated difference between spoofing and legitimate exposure control. I dislike laws which are so vaguely defined that the only way to remain law-abiding isn't to avoid specific behaviors but to avoid attracting any attention from the authorities.

1 comments

But at time of submission, you did intend for one of the orders to execute. you didn't know which one, and you'd be happy with either one filled. those orders look bona finde to me.

An order placed, whose entire purpose is to elicit a reaction from others, is clearly spoofing. the spoofer would be unhappy to get filled at all.