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by AnthonyMouse 1658 days ago
> There's no biological reason a human subspecies couldn't have gotten isolated in a valley somewhere and ended up being fifty IQ points smarter or dumber than the rest of humanity. Same goes for our sexes being identically intellectually capable. Would the principle of egalitarianism have ever emerged in such a world?

I want to say yes, because how are you even distinguishing that world from this one? There exist humans who are fifty IQ points smarter or dumber than other humans who also exist.

The batshit crazy idea is that these differences are caused by or intrinsically bound with skin color.

As for sex differences, here's the money quote:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sex_differences_in_intelligenc...

> All or most of the major tests commonly used to measure intelligence have been constructed so that there are no overall score differences between males and females.

We believe in egalitarianism, therefore IQ tests that show a sex difference are wrong, therefore we use IQ tests that show no sex difference.

Now, if there are biological differences between the sexes, they could not only go either way, they could go both ways. It's possible that on average women are better at X and men are better at Y, so you could really design a test to show whatever result you want.

It's also obviously the case that no matter what the averages are, the world's highest-scoring male will almost certainly have a better score than the world's lowest-scoring female and vice versa. So arguments of the form "women can't do X" are stupid even if you can find a statistically significant difference in the averages using some metric. Because most people are not exactly average.

Discrimination is the assumption that all members of a group are the same.

1 comments

There exist humans who are fifty IQ points smarter or dumber than other humans who also exist.

Sure but they're not all in the same ethnic group. What if a populous group had the peak of their intellectual curve far down the range? If, say, Gauls/French people were almost entirely simpletons equivalent to someone with Down Syndrome? Would they be enslaved and turned into a worldwide servant class? Every other group that were thought of as being inferior can be demonstrably equal to their oppressors but I think a world in which they weren't could be very different.

> What if a populous group had the peak of their intellectual curve far down the range?

It takes a long time, an evolutionary timescale for that sort of difference to emerge. There’s an argument that the reason that modern humans are so homogeneous is because we wiped out all competition long before we had recorded history or civilisation.

That's not a hypothetical, many Pygmies are currently enslaved

https://mankindquarterly.org/archive/issue/51-4/2

The thing is, when humans conquer a rival group, we tend to rape the survivors. That kind of ensures genetic mixing, so this kind large discrepancy in innate ability couldn't really appear.