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by s28l
1679 days ago
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The author is playing fast and loose with definitions here. Other sources[0][1] (that I would consider more reputable) define the breeder's equation in terms of populations, but this author focuses on arbitrary and ill-defined subsets of populations. Crucially, the author defines R as "the response to selection", but he omits the second part: "from one generation to the next". Source [0] defines it even more clearly: "the change in the mean [of the population] over one complete generation". Similarly, S is the difference in the measured trait among the entire population and the population that reproduces. So when the author considers "a set of parents with IQs of 120", it only fits the correct usage of the equation if we take that to mean that mean IQ of all parents in this generation is 120. If that's his argument, how is he defining the population of parents? In my opinion, this is a wishy-washy argument that seems like a subtle way of advancing eugenics (or something similarly distasteful). [0]: https://www.nature.com/scitable/knowledge/library/the-breede...
[1]: https://public.wsu.edu/~gomulki/biol519/presentations/Sjober... |
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In the article's first thought experiment, we take a population with IQ 100, pull out the subset with IQ 120, have that IQ 120 subset breed with one another. According to the breeder's equation, we get children with average IQ 110. What is "arbitrary", "ill-defined", "fast and loose", etc. about this? It seems to be a standard application of the equation, no different than how one might breed cows for milk or tomatoes for size. It's quite unclear how the "crucial" clause "from one generation to the next" undermines any of this.
And could we perhaps focus on understanding what was said before muddying the waters with unsubstantiated accusations of eugenics? HN rules say that HN is for learning and understanding, not ideological warfare.