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by neilwilson 1685 days ago
Is it.

The reserve ratio in the UK and Canada is zero. Which means we should have infinite money in the banking system according to your beliefs.

Yet demonstrably we do not.

You have the line of causality backward, as the Bank of England helpfully explains in detail here: https://www.bankofengland.co.uk/-/media/boe/files/quarterly-...

1 comments

1) It appears to me that the document you provided actually refutes what you are saying. It supports fractional reserve banking. Here is a quote from the conclusion: "Most of the money in circulation is created, not by the printing presses of the Bank of England, but by the commercial banks themselves: banks create money whenever they lend to someone in the economy or buy an asset from consumers. "

2) "infinite money" without a legal limit to reserve ratios would only occur if every single bank actually had exactly 0% reserves, and it would take infinite time and infinite transactions for that to occur.

FYI using the observed absence of 'infinity' as a proof is generally poor logic as there is lots of mechanisms blocking infinity from occurring in reality.