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by vehemenz
1689 days ago
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Bad faith might be part of it. I think bad faith is more conducive when neither side of an argument are able to communicate clearly enough for the other. If that's the case, then a better understanding of English is the remedy, not formulating needlessly metaphysical conceptions of gender. But I still think there is more going on. The subject in question is gender and gender identity. To begin with, even educated folks operating in good faith do not have a particularly coherent account of either. As I suggest, part of this could be due to the particulars of the English language—the auto-antonymity of "gender"—but mainly I think it's conceptual confusion. |
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I think there is a common, clear, useful model of both what descriptively exists and what the two main factions prefer normatively:
Given: that there exist actual physical differences between people, and
Given: that these differences are the basis for different descriptive labels on several orthogonal axes,
Given: that there are categories i to which people are assigned by society, and
Given: those categories are on a number of orthogonal axes, and
Given: that people have idea of which of those categories they should be assigned by society.
There is one of axes of physical trait based differentiation called “sex”.
There is one axis of social differentiation called “gender”, for which the corresponding self-understood correct category is “gender identity”.
The two major conflicting normative camps are: one that holds that sex determines correct socially ascribed gender (of which there are two possible categorizations of each) and correct gender identity (the same as correct ascribed gender), and one that holds that gender identity defines correct socially ascribed gender and that sex is largely beside the point (even if it statistically correlates with gender identity.)