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by TheAuditor 1693 days ago
That is not true. As long as the software is not licensed, we do not have a legal right to use the code as it is an intellectual property of someone else. Using such code opens up the ability for the owner to sue us if he is in the right place with the right preparation.
1 comments

Sorry, I didn't mean to imply that it wasn't licensed at all. I was arguing from the point of view of the author, not the user. Because there is no contract nor consideration/payment, the author is (or ought to be, morally) by default under no obligations nor liabilities.