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by aspenmayer
1704 days ago
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If the US government can selectively apply Constitutional protections to citizens and noncitizens worldwide, others should be able to claim those same rights if in a jurisdiction arguably subject to US control, presence, or influence. Not sure whether a UK citizen in the UK would qualify in that case, but I don’t find the idea absurd on its face. |
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Or, more specifically, I attempt to paraphrase:
If the US doesn't respect inalienable rights, then non-citizens should have them?
I don't see any connection, and you seem to also be saying you believe in inalienable rights which are alienable.