Hacker News new | ask | show | jobs
by shkkmo 1707 days ago
Doesn't playing a song with the explicit intention of having it be recorded count as having intent to perform?
1 comments

It's really curious in this case though, the intent is for the music to trigger automated software that prevents performance. Hard to classify that as 'intent to perform' especially with USA's Fair Use.

My understanding is in UK causing a recording to be made (whether viewed or not) would be infringing. We have Fair Dealing but it's extremely restrictive compared to Fair Use.

Just my personal, private opinion.