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by endisneigh 1716 days ago
Webster, Dictionary.com, Oxford and others define segregation as:

> separated or divided along racial, sexual, or religious lines.

Perhaps the NYC editor was using that definition. If you use any of those definitions, then yes your comment is objectively incorrect.

2 comments

And several of those also provide definitions that include explicit policy of doing so, further reinforcing the point that the connotation exists.
Sure, but words have different definitions. My point is that a charitable read of the article is using the definition that applies in this scenario per the article, and therefore the original comment is incorrect.

Obviously an uncharitable read can lead one to dismiss the intentions of everyone involved.

For the program to be racially segregated using your above definition(ignoring common usage), then the program itself would have to have separated the races in the program.

The NYTimes article isn't an 8 year old writing their first newspaper article using the dictionary to form sentences.

Their usage of the word is inflammatory and incorrect on multiple levels including your definition.