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by veeenu
1731 days ago
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This is widely known among practitioners, but there is a caveat -- a 1/N portfolio bears a much higher risk than, say, a cap-weighted portfolio or a risk-parity asset allocation. A 1/N portfolio receives an equal contribution in terms of volatility from each asset, meaning that very risky assets significantly increase the portfolio's volatility, while not necessarily contributing proportionally better returns, due to the nonlinearity and asymmetry of volatility's effects on prices. This way, 1/N ends up performing very poorly on a risk-adjusted basis while undoubtedly at the same time outperforming any other kind of allocation on the basis of return alone. This is rather unacceptable in a real world portfolio where the tail risks and emotions can lead an investor to ruin. |
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I fear I'm misunderstanding you. Are you saying despite having higher returns, the higher risk makes this strategy worse? That really feels like handwaving to me, since the only thing I care about is ROI. I understand nonlinearity and how it could tank your investment, but if it doesn't and you make more money then you're criticizing something that never happened. The higher risk is already baked into the ROI, because it includes the times that failed. The point is, in aggregate, you make more money - and most of the time that is the only thing I care about when investing.
Or am I misunderstanding you?