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by dragonwriter
1750 days ago
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> the language of the law suggests that it's prohibited based on their political viewpoints versus isolating a specific political viewpoint. You seem to be assuming a facially neutral law with a viewpoint specific purpose is Constitutional. It is not. Usually, its harder to prove an improper purpose for a facially-neutral law, but then usually the people passing and signing a law with an improper purpose don't just public announce the viewpoint they are seeking to advance. |
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