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by dcolkitt
1743 days ago
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A judge is a lot more likely to twist the language in a legal contract than he is to outright appropriate property that's not even being legally transferred. The latter would be immediately reversed by an injunction in a higher court, and the lower judge would be remanded, possibly removed from office. I can't find a single instance in American history of real property being outright appropriated by a court outside eminent domain. |
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