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by twakefield
1738 days ago
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The 409(a) valuation is the value of the common shares. They are generally valued at a discount to the preferred shares (or company valuation) due to the fact that the preferred shares have a pay back preference and the common are considered less liquid. The discount is generally higher (70-80%) during the early stages of a company when a liquidity event is less certain and the discount decreases over time. |
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>The difference between these two values is the “Implied Value per Share”
By subtracting the two values, you're getting the preferred shares premium, not the "implied value" of the options.
The proper name for "implied value" used in the OP is "intrinsic value"[1]. While it's possible for that to be present, it's probably negligible. At the very least, it's non-trivial to determine, and requires a lot of guesswork regarding the actual current value of the company. 409a valuations exist specifically to prevent giving employees compensation via the intrinsic value of an option (eg. apple issuing options with a strike price of $0.01). Most of the value of the option is in the time value, which is even harder to calculate.
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Valuation_of_options