[bdowling]

> The hypothesis speculates that, if a building's assessed value is lowered, it could trigger conditions in loan contracts that penalize the landlord or investor.

This is the issue exactly. A commercial mortgage lender will insist on a certain maximum Loan-to-Value ratio. The value of the property is directly related to the long-term income that it generates (i.e., the net present value of all future cash flows). If the amounts of cash flows go down, then the value of the property goes down and the loan-to-value ratio goes up. In a commercial loan, the lender can often call the loan due at certain times during the term of the loan for any reason. One big reason to do so is if the loan-to-value ratio goes up beyond the level that the lender was comfortable with. Refinancing in such a circumstance could be very expensive. Thus, it may make more sense for an owner to keep a property vacant and lose money temporarily than to take on a tenant at a lower rent and possibly cause the lender to call the loan.

[jjeaff]

I have heard this explanation a few times, but what i don't get is why doesn't a long term vacancy trigger an adjusted loan to value ratio? Seems like it would cause an appraisal to be much lower than just charging less rent and actually getting a tenant.

[bdowling]

The present value of an income stream starting in the future at the established rate may be higher in some cases than the present value of an income stream at a lower rate that starts immediately.