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by atq2119
1749 days ago
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The variance goes to 0 only if you normalize, which is to say that two random high-dimensional vectors are very likely to be close to orthogonal (under mild assumptions on their distribution). I agree that that's one of those important but initially unintuitive facts about high dimensions. Just like almost all of the volume of a reasonably round convey body is near its surface. But it also doesn't really contradict the GP comment. |
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I’d say that’s pretty intuitive for anyone who can see a pattern in surface area to volume ratios.
1D ball: 2 / (2 * r) = 1/r
2D ball: (2 * pi * r) / (pi * r^2) = 2/r
3D ball: (4 * pi * r^2) / (4/3 * pi * r^3) = 3/r
nD ball: ... = n/r