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by trutannus 1760 days ago
>Why would the bottom 51% have more influence than the top 51%

51 + 51 = 102%

The bottom 51% have more influence than the top 49% because one is a majority. There is your answer.

2 comments

I think you missed the point. By this logic, the top 51% have more influence than the bottom 49% so why isn't GP saying they're the ones driving democracy?

As an aside, if you look at the elected representatives of Australia, I suspect you'll find most of them are highly educated.

or you might not. some of the highest ministers are country bumpkins catering to the lowest common denominator. the country was however founded by very well educated persons.
Why must the 50% percentile vote with the bottom half rather than the top half?