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by perl4ever
1753 days ago
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Until recently I never questioned the idea that, say, the positive integers and the odd positive integers are equivalent because they can be paired, but this cloning thing seems like something that falls out of that. And it seems like that view of infinity isn't actually necessary if Cantor style cardinality is not the last word. In the paragraph on nonstandard analysis in the Wikipedia page on infinity, it says: "The infinities in this sense are part of a hyperreal field; there is no equivalence between them as with the Cantorian transfinites. For example, if H is an infinite number in this sense, then H + H = 2H and H + 1 are distinct infinite numbers" https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infinity I can't say anything precise or mathematical, but after I read the above, I have an "obvious in hindsight" feeling. If H=inf is different from H + 1, how much different is it? 1/inf or an infinitesimal amount! And an infinitesimal is not nothing. The quanta article says "You can add or subtract any finite number to infinity and the result is still the same infinity you started with" but this seems like just a dogma for non mathematicians? |
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They really aren’t connected. The first statement (the positive integers can be partitioned into two sets, each of which has the same size as the original set) follows from the usual axioms of set theory (ZF), while the Banach–Tarski paradox cannot be proven to work without the Axiom of Choice or a similar axiom.