[allturtles]

The statistical evidence shows that "the" is used more frequently in Macbeth, but the anecdotal evidence used to connect that fact to the play's spookiness relies on the idea that there are differences in the grammatical use of "the" that are specific to Macbeth.

The fact that "the" happens to be used more often in Macbeth than in other Shakespeare plays seems to me more likely to be noise with no deeper meaning.