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by tynpeddler
1767 days ago
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That number does not mean what people think it does and is being bandied around as a result of extreme statistics illiteracy: https://www.covid-datascience.com/post/israeli-data-how-can-... Also, what is the world is going on in that preprint[0]? I can not follow their conclusions in Table 1 model 1. Looking at Table 1 - Model 1, it looks like the 40+, early vaccinated cohort has only a 15%-30% chance of being infected as compared to the 40+, late vaccinated cohort. The paper itself says they did some adjustments for co-morbidities, but has no description of what they did. So it looks like the paper's conclusion is directly the opposite of what's being shown in the Table 1 - Model 1. [0]https://www.medrxiv.org/content/10.1101/2021.07.29.21261317v... |
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