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by Forge36 1763 days ago
Based on this previous case Apple isn't violating the law because they also sold the hardware.
3 comments

Anti-trust cases aren't decided on binary terms. It's the overall act that's illegal. In other words just because the situation with Apple is different from Microsoft's anti-trust case doesn't mean Apple could not be violating the law. Paying or accepting money for the purposes of a company receiving an unfair competitive advantage is also covered under anti-trust laws such as the Advanced Micro Devices, Inc. v. Intel Corp case.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Advanced_Micro_Devices,_Inc._v....

I would argue that makes it worse.
Are you saying that Safari requires hardware-level apis?
Nope, all PCs came with Windows and OEMs willing to sell alternative computers didn't had volume discounts.

It was a choice, but most decided to cave in and only sell PCs.

Here that isn't the case, most shops selling iPhones also have other brands available. Customers aren't forced into buying iPhones.

You raised the bar that is required. It is more appropriate to look whether iPhones are a dominant brand, not whether they are the only brand.
Which they are not.
You have 45% phones to chose from.