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by yummyfajitas
5442 days ago
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I'm asking because I'm genuinely curious. As for requiring new issues to pay off existing bond holders, why would that be necessary if spending were reduced or income increased? It seems as if paying off a bond holder with new debt should be more or less deficit neutral. I.e., if I pay off $500 of my $1500 credit card bill, my credit limit remains fixed at $1500 but my debt is now only $1000. I am free to borrow another $500 if I need to. Is the problem merely that I need to borrow $500 first, raise my debt to $2000 for one day, and then pay off $500 worth of old debt (bringing me back down to $1500)? |
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i think that's exactly where the problem is. the debt payments are due soon and until the republicans turned the federal debt limit into a political issue, it was being presupposed that it would be raised "automatically" by congress. now they've turned it into a bargaining tool (similar to what they did under gingrich in the nineties) and we have "inconsistent time scales", in that budgeting changes take much longer than the time to next due date. basically, the republicans hold up the extension "in return" for concessions by the president on the revenue side (i.e. no tax increases for their plutocratic clientele) and forcing him to regulate the long-term debt problem only on the spending side.
but you know what, i shouldn't be talking through my hat. i'm not american, have only limited understanding of the us budgeting process, and like i've said have turned my eyes off the markets for a while now. so if anyone knows better, please, enlighten us :-)