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by empeyot 1795 days ago
In English the /v/ in the phonetic spelling [edit, was: transcription] vee usually represents a voiced labiodental fricative (as /v/ in Italian Vincente) whereas most Spanish speakers will pronounce v (just like b) as voiced bilabial fricative or approximant. That is, I'd expect Vicente to be phonetically spelled bee-sen-teh (well aware that English /b/ is not a fricative as Spanish /v/ and /b/).
1 comments

You're right! Most castellano speakers don't make a distinction between /b/ and /v/. Some latin american countries do make the distinction and also some spanish regions, like catalan/valenciano speakers in certain regions have a stronger or softer, yet still distinct /v/ sound, such as in "a veure, Vicent" (let's see, Vincent).