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by wutbrodo 1794 days ago
This thread is about the distinction between zero-interest loans and high-interest loans. The parent commenter claimed that people would be less likely to internalize the need to pay zero-interest loans because there's no interest. I said that the principal is a much more dominant concern. You are _agreeing with me_, but somehow couching your comment as disagreement?

> It wasn't the interest that got me, it was the lack of money.

This is precisely my point! The same thing applies for zero-interest loans.

Your comment says "it's not a reach [that the presence of interest is what makes people conscious of their payday loans]", and then says "the presence of interest is not what makes people conscious of their payday loans". Is this completely self-contradictory, or am I missing something?