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by dragonwriter 1798 days ago
> No, you have to prove that it was stated with intent of spreading false information about the person who was wronged.

Even for public figures where the NY Times v. Sullivan “actual malice” standard applies, intentional/knowing falsity is not required; reckless disregard for the truth or falsity of the statement is sufficient for actual malice.

https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/defamation

1 comments

OK, let me add in your clarification. Thank you for educating me on the matter.