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by carlobadini 1803 days ago
> For example, apartments in my building are roughly the same price whether furnished or unfurnished.

I would question that statement. :) That doesn't seem to make a lot of sense economically. The only two reasons that come to mind why this may be true are a) the furniture in the furnished apartments is super cheap or b) the furnished apartments are located subpar in one way or another. But I may be wrong.

2 comments

At the top end of the market the amount of money involved means it's often more economical to focus on maximising occupation, rather than minimising initial costs. My apartment, for example, is worth around £1m and has around £10,000 worth of furniture in it provided by the landlord: if during the lifespan of the furniture the convenience of the apartment being furnished reduces tenancy voids by a total of 3 months then the furniture pays for itself.

I don't want to expose my address but you can browse "London" on the UK property website Rightmove and find comparable apartments (same building, same floorplan) with furnished/unfurnished prices that are no different.

Ah now I get it. Yeah you're absolutely right. I can imagine that we'll be working with landlords in markets like these instead of going directly B2C. While landlords may not care too much about the financial aspect of renting furniture they may care about the service aspect. We take care of the furniture, insure it, replace it ect. :)
Just a quick follow-up to provide an example, where furnished is cheaper than unfurnished, despite being identical: same building, same floorplan.

https://www.rightmove.co.uk/properties/110025968

https://www.rightmove.co.uk/properties/110204747

That's fascinating! We'll look into this.