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by wxnx
1810 days ago
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The notion of a standard language is a modern idea (not in the sense of modern vs. postmodern, but historically). The idea that the only valid basis for distinguishing between dialects is geography strikes me as odd, but suppose we accept it as a premise. Why is it less valid to allow correctness to be defined, say, with respect to local borders as opposed to the borders between countries? |
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It ultimately comes down to politics and economics.