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by jgilias
1814 days ago
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We really can not know this. We can only infer from cultures and religions in the relatively short timespan covered by written history. And even then, morality has changed significantly through time. A simple example - would you think that someone telling a story about someone else beating his wife to a pulp is something to laugh about? Here, check out how the audience reacts just a bit more than 50 years ago:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ccyu44rsaZo I think the only moral that may have been something close to universal throughout times would've been something like: "Don't kill a member of in-group without a good reason if you're not the head honcho." Everything else? We have literally no idea. EDIT: Really, watch the video, it actually applies to the discussion really well. It's basically an argument about morals. |
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That written history covers an enormous amount of ground, with records going back 6,000 years and in diverse cultures, from Sanskrit in what is now India to cuneiform to China for thousands of years, etc., and those records including older materials. Anthropologists have been studying different cultures for a long time and have plenty of evidence of what is consistent across them. Much is known about how morality develops in children. Etc.
Every human being understands it. You don't walk into a room in a strange culture and wonder, 'maybe these people think it's funny to poison each other' or 'maybe they are pure anarchists' or 'maybe they eat all their children'.
We can't have perfect knowledge of this question or anything, but to confuse that with no knowledge is absurd. For example,
> We have literally no idea.
Why is it important to you (and others) to try to push a transparent falsehood that empowers evil behavior?