[logifail]

> Because Ulysses could not be legally published in the United States, it could not be copyrighted

I'm struggling to understand that particular statement. Can anyone explain?

EDIT: "Copyright exists automatically in an original work of authorship once it is fixed in a tangible medium"[0]

If you write out your original thoughts on a piece of paper, that's fixing them in a tangible medium, right?

[0] https://www.copyright.gov/circs/circ01.pdf

[dragonwriter]

Automatic copyright is a feature of fairly recent copyright law; the law at the time of Ulysses was different. I don’t offhand know if the upthread comment about it be ineligible for US copyright or thr asserted reason is correct, but pointing to a feature of current US copyright law that didn't exist at the time isn't germane to that o e way or the other.