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by recursivedoubts 1825 days ago
That appears to be a general argument for self-determination or segregation, according to tastes.
2 comments

No more so than laws about elected officials actually living in the districts they're representing.
The concept of policing by consent arose in a city which, at that time in the 19th century, was not riven by racial conflict. To claim that it is an argument for segregation is ahistorical. Self-determination maybe, but the concept was originally put forward in order to improve outcomes, not for the political liberation of the local people per se.