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by prof-dr-ir
1836 days ago
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No, that is saying that f(0) = 0 which is correct but not what I asked about (nor what was stated in the article). Incidentally, your correct observation is in contradiction with f(a) = 2 pi log(|a|) since the latter only holds for |a| >= 1. This is because f(a) is not a smooth function. |
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