[notahacker]

Considering that the author does extensively discuss what he considers to be ahistorical British diction in the Latin speaking, and that Romans (even those that were from Italy!) were much more visibly ethnically varied than modern Italian regional groups, and doesn't at any point raise the 19th century politican position that Italians were insufficiently white to deserve prestige in or even admittance to the United States, that seems to be rather a lot of projection on your part