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by Daishiman 1832 days ago
You're being pedantic. It's the second of only two alternatives; it counts as monopoly power here and everywhere.
1 comments

It’s vastly smaller though so doesn’t have the market power that a monopoly would have.

When there’s a market with only two players where #1 has 75% of the market and #2 has 24%, describing #2 as being part of a monopoly is inaccurate.

That’s like saying that Apple had a monopoly with Microsoft in the 90s because between the two of them they had the whole market.

> When there’s a market with only two players where #1 has 75% of the market and #2 has 24%, describing #2 as being part of a monopoly is inaccurate.

It's very strange that you think worldwide market share has anything to do with market share in the US when it comes to antitrust laws in the US.

iOS has 60% of the market in the US[1], with Android taking the remainder. Apple and Google form an effective duopoly in the mobile OS, app distribution and app payment markets. They both form a mobile app distribution cartel that engages in price-fixing[2].

Again, your colloquial definition of monopoly doesn't matter when it comes to antitrust laws in the US. Please read this[3].

[1] https://www.pcmag.com/news/ios-more-popular-in-japan-and-us-...

[2] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Price_fixing

[3] https://www.ftc.gov/tips-advice/competition-guidance/guide-a...