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by temp10298385
1833 days ago
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Seems that the most common retort in this thread is to hammer down on the principle that unrealised gains should not be taxed. This is directly addressed in the article. Unrealised gains can still work as collateral for loans. The spending habits appear as if your unrealised gains were bonafide income. At what point does the distinction between wealth and income become arbitrary? There seems to be a large amount of "missing the point" in this thread. As a wage labourer my wealth growth is significantly hampered by taxation. For the small group of people with net worth tied up in financial assets, taxation doesn't slow their growth in any meaningful capacity. If we ignore any ideological predispositions and instead simply ask what limit this system is approaching I think the answer seems terrifying. A common sentiment here is that inequality is not a problem in and of itself. "How does Bezos wealth possibly impact me?". Having seen the difference in equality in Scandinavia, USA, and South Africa I would beg to differ. Inequality eats at a society at all levels. The rich I met in America seemed less happy than the poor in Sweden. In South Africa even more so. |
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I think risk is the difference. Someone invested (esp. heavily in one name) who borrows against that holding to finance consumption is basically adding leverage to their position, increasing their risk in order to continue growing their investment. Since growth is a social good, that's incentivized. It becomes income when you take your chips off the table i.e. making that capital entirely private instead of investing alongside others.
The risk is less apparently in TFA since it, you know, focuses on 25 of the absolute wealthiest people in the world, any one of whom can finance any sort of consumption short of becoming a nation-state without impacting their position, borrowing or selling.
Whether _wealth_ inequality is so undesirable that it should be ameliorated even at the expense of growth is a policy conversation worth having, but equating change in wealth to income and arguing _income_ inequality doesn't really hold water, esp. for wealth primarily invested in public names