[bernulli]

I understand what the author is claiming. What I am saying is that the argument does not show that at all: if, for the same action, you will be charged in country A (because of stricter hate crime laws) but not in country B, then, obviously, there will be more charges brought against people for violating this in country A than in country B (because it's not a crime in country B!).

It's like comparing two countries about their drug laws. Clearly, when certain drugs are illegal in country A but not in country B, people will only be charged because of drug use in country A. But this does not mean that there is less drug use in country B - for all we know, everyone in country B could be using that drug 24/7 - it's just not a violation of the law, and thus does not lead to more charges.