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by gher-shyu3i 1849 days ago
> I've tried to understand the core issue and frankly, failed

It's quite straight forward. Up until WWI, Jews, Christians, and Muslims lived in Palestine, which it and other areas of Arabia and North Africa were under Ottoman rule. During WWI, Sykes–Picot divided up the Muslim lands into arbitrary borders to make them easier to occupy. Syria was occupied by the French, Libya by the Italians, etc. Palestine was under British rule. Post WWII, the Zionists convinced Britain to give them Palestine, so they moved in and formed an illegal government, which ironically applied similar tactics the Nazis applied to the Jews in WWII (ethnic cleansing, killing discriminately, etc.). The conflict continues to this day until the Palestinians get back their rightful land.n

Edit: changed WWII to WWI.

2 comments

You're mixing up history. The Sykes–Picot Agreement was made in 1916. The Ottoman Empire was no more long before WWII.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sykes%E2%80%93Picot_Agreement

I meant WWI. I'll edit my post. The point remains however.
…and how exactly are they supposed to “get back their rightful land”?