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by bigphishy 1854 days ago
When a fetus is exposed to testosterone ( as males are ) their physiology is fundamentally and unalterably changed.
1 comments

All things lie on a spectrum: there's no binary "was exposed to testosterone in the womb", nor is there a binary "their physiology is changed or not". See, for example, https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2019/03/190318151730.h..., a paper which purports to show that females who shared a womb with males tend to have some of their life outcomes pushed towards the testosterone end of the scale.
I have to correct my original comment, it's actually the presence of the Y chromosome, and consequently the reaction of androgen receptors to testosterone in the womb that causes the physiological change on the male fetus. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Androgen_receptor#Effect_on_de...

This event early on in the embryo's development is tantamount to dividing males from females.